2007-11-04 12:55:37 · 39 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
It took 11 wrong answers before somone got it right! Don't ANY Americans actually read their Constitution any more? PRIVATE slavery was abolished by the 13th Amendment, but that amendment makes a specific exception for the use of slavery as a punishment for crimes, that's why the US has chain gangs.
Joe R must have read it!
Marcy apparently read it, but not all the way to the end! LOL!
2007-11-04 13:04:48 · update #1
The 13th Amendment says:
Section 1. Neither slavery nor involuntary servitude, EXCEPT AS A PUNISHMENT FOR CRIME WHEREOF THE PARTY SHALL HAVE BEEN DULY CONVICTED, shall exist within the United States, or any place subject to their jurisdiction.
It's hard to believe so few Americans seem to know this!
2007-11-05 00:12:31 · update #2
Convicts working for free is a form of slavery, although it is easier to accept and more justified.
Think about it... it is a legal form of slavery... although in may prisons, they do get paid a small amount...
And community service...
2007-11-04 12:58:57 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 6⤊ 1⤋
So is the slave trade - only the CSA Constitution made that illegal and the USA was the largest transporter of slaves to the New World by far until around 1888 when the last New World Nation ended non-judicial slavery (Brazil). It's kind of moot now but it never was made illegal Constitutionally. The New England states prevented that from happening.
2007-11-04 13:41:45 · answer #2 · answered by Caninelegion 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
on the commencing up it replaced into...however the congregation concept it would be greater ideal to leave it out...or leave a imprecise description, decrease back then slaves have been seen to be i've got faith 3/4s a man or woman or maybe decrease. there wasn't a criminal shape it replaced into the imancipation proclamation that freed the slaves of the south a minimum of. Northerners have been unfastened 50 mind-blowing years previously the southerners...properly that they have been mixing toddlers for the longest, it replaced into appeared down on no longer by way of the partisan yet by way of the product or the baby...they have been nevertheless black. whether it wasn't till around the 1970's human beings began starting to be to be much less disappointed with the reality of a white and black having family members. properly once you pass to the south for the 1st time and you hear somebody call yet another man or woman a n***** then you certainly paintings that an incredible variety of the south continues to be racist.
2016-11-10 07:07:59 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, not in the sense that one person can own another; but, many of us are held slaves by the government. Those of us that were married for many years and then divorced by men who decided they wanted a younger woman and we had not the resources to hire the best of lawyers. We have been shafted - left with no maintainence, very little income from SSI because like others I was a stay at home mother as my husband wished.
I now live on $563/mo. He married a woman 2 years older than our son, refused to pay the bills the judge ordered him to pay, has left all of the utilities in her name; so, no one has been able to find him.
If I were to try to work any kind of job, the government will take from me dollar for dollar what I earn. Not much of a chance for me to climb up is there? I call that slavery.
I hope this gives you a different view.
Good luck.
2007-11-04 13:03:27 · answer #4 · answered by marshfield_meme 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Certainly not. Read the 13th amendment to the US Constitution.
Edit: Emancipation Proclamation on January 1, 1863, only ended slavery in the "Rebellious States". The 13th Amendment ended it in the entire country.
2007-11-04 12:58:10 · answer #5 · answered by DaveNCUSA 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Hey, um...Chris Miller...get your **** together and check your facts...takes about 2 seconds... The Emancipation Proclamation was first issued on September 22, 1862...the war was already over by your 1865 suggestion...and the blacks were already back to work for their old masters...
2007-11-04 13:07:24 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
actually according to the constitution YES. however only in the case of slavery as punishment. check it out: constitutional amendment 13.
http://www.archives.gov/national-archives-experience/charters/constitution_amendments_11-27.html
2007-11-04 13:03:30 · answer #7 · answered by ?????? 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Salam
What is slavery? Are you talking about someone being deprived of their rights and ignored of their freedom and ability to succeed in goodness and peace in this free nation of ours? Well then if you are then that is truly slavery? If your talking about someone making themselves less of a person beside someone else other than knowledge then I would also say that is slavery.
Are you talking about those wonderful people in history that did everything for us to have freedom and that to be ignored, well then that is also slavery of the mind isn't it. I pray they wake inshAllah Amen
2007-11-04 12:59:25 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Dude, where the f u c k have you been? The Emancipation Proclamation outlawed slavery in the year 1865, I believe, either that or 1867.
2007-11-04 13:03:30 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
I know you are not serious with this question. But I will answer by asking you, are there any blacks living better than whites?
If the answer is yes, than I guess slavery is non existent. Though I am sure many racist wish we would not exist and want us to go back to "Africa." I just say why don't they go back to where they came from?
2007-11-04 13:01:17 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋