the only way I could say that 1+1=0 is if you are in binary system whereas 0 and 1 are the only numbers so 0+0=0;0+1=1;1+0=1;1+1=0
2007-11-04 10:18:03
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answer #1
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answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7
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OK. first or all there is no "proof" that proves that 1 + 1 = 0. All supposed "proofs" of this are incorrect, because they violate one or more of the rules of mathematics. I used to think, "Oh, wow, he proved that 1 = 0!" but that is INCORRECT. In the "proof" that I was shown, the person divided both sides of his equation by a variable, which is not allowed. This is because the variable could have a value of zero, and you are NOT allowed to divide by zero. THerefore, there is no proof that 1 + 1 = 0 and the only other answer than my answer involves people thinking that they're smart but actually being wrong.
2007-11-04 10:06:36
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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1+1 = 0 is true in mod 2.
In the bianary number system, 1+1 = 10
If you're using regular numbers there is no valid mathematical proof that 1+1=0. All supposed "proofs" are based on well hidden mistakes.
Good Luck
2007-11-04 10:20:43
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answer #3
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answered by lewanj 3
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hi There provides a information it rather is used to instruct scholars specific fallacies. as an occasion, the only reason that information works is because of the fact you divide by (a-b) yet (a-b)=a million-a million=0, so which you're dividing by 0 which does no longer artwork. So, in base 10 it rather is fake. besides the fact that if, in case you're working in mod2 then a=b(mod n) if a-b=mn, or that the version of the two numbers is an integer diverse of the modulo quantity. if so, a million+a million=2, and a pair of-0=2=m(2), the place m=a million it rather is an integer. consequently, in mod2, a million+a million=2=0. In different base structures the assertion is fake.
2016-12-15 16:33:35
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answer #4
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answered by ? 4
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No, unless you say one of the ones is a negative.
2007-11-04 10:07:23
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answer #5
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answered by lagirl 3
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not really..
2007-11-04 10:03:51
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answer #6
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answered by Grid 7
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