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2007-11-04 05:35:54 · 41 answers · asked by futuretopgun101 5 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

Legally speaking.

2007-11-04 05:36:30 · update #1

So a woman can (in terms of the law) rape a man?
Just having a discussion about it with someone.

2007-11-04 05:45:25 · update #2

To Adrian B - all men have involuntary erectiosn at some point in their lives. Ever woken up with one?
They are almost impossible to control except with huge amounts of alcohol.

2007-11-04 05:49:51 · update #3

41 answers

Yes, there have been several cases which have been succesfully prosecuted.

One I remember from the early 1980's in the UK involved a couple who abducted a man and the wife raped him in a car as her husband was infertlie and she wanted to concieve.

There is a small gland in the male anus, which when stimulated can cause an involuntary erection - this is what they did. You should find the case listed on the internet.

2007-11-04 05:41:15 · answer #1 · answered by Catherine1 4 · 2 1

Legally speaking, in the UK, a woman cannot rape a man.

Rape is defined as the penetration of a woman by a man without her true and informed consent. For a rape to have happened, the man must place his penis inside the woman's vagina, although he does not have to ejaculate for the offence to be complete.

Consent is often a defence raised, but for it to succeed the consent must be genuine and informed. This means that a woman can be raped if the consent she gives is not genuine, for example, she has sex in the dark with a man she thinks is her partner, but it turns out to be another man. Drunk women have in the past been found to have been raped, because their consent was not genuine. Some rapes have been where a man has had sexual intercourse with a woman who is so mentally ill that she cannot give a true and informed consent to the act because of her disability.

If a man tries to have sex with a woman, and touches her initmately but does not penetrate her, then the charge would either be attempted rape and/or indecent assault. If a woman tries to have sex with a man without his consent, touches him intimately and so on then the charge would again be indecent assault.

No - one under the age of consent (currently 16 for heterosexuals in the UK) can legally consent to intimate sexual contact or intercourse.

2007-11-04 05:59:25 · answer #2 · answered by MarkEverest 5 · 0 1

yes, as others have mentioned rape is rape, no matter who the victim is. where some people here seem to be confused, is because you asked 'legally'. obviously not legal, but in law if a man or woman takes advantage of another man or woman against there will for sexual gratification, legally that is classed as rape.

2007-11-04 05:54:42 · answer #3 · answered by ANDREW M 3 · 0 0

Yes a woman can rape a man and can go to jail for it.

It's rare but it has happened. Though I think that it's mostly older pedophiles and child abusers molesting kids rather than adult women sexually assaulting adult men.

Of course, if a woman rams something up a man's backside (for example she drugs him and shoves a broom handle up there) it's classed as a sexual assault (thus it is rape) just as if a man were to do the same thing to a woman.

2007-11-04 05:49:32 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes. There has been at least one heavily publicised case in the UK in around 1980 where a woman kidnapped and raped an American she was stalking while he was working over here. He was working as a religious missionary and had refused her advances many times before.

Rape is rape, She assaulted him tied him up and gave him no choice.

2007-11-04 05:53:14 · answer #5 · answered by Ring of Uranus 5 · 0 0

Yes, women can be accused of, and found guilty of raping a man. "Rape" is not gender specific. Society has a tendency to consider rape as gender specific because a male raping a female is a more common occurrence than a female raping a male.

2007-11-04 05:47:17 · answer #6 · answered by wry humor 5 · 0 0

By section s (1) of the Sexual Offences Act 2003, a person commits rape if
a) he intentionally penetrates the vagina, anus or mouth of another person with his penis
b) The victim does not consent to the penetration
c) The person does not reasonably believe that the victim consents

2007-11-04 06:20:42 · answer #7 · answered by Ben Gunn 5 · 1 0

I wonder whether it would be considered rape in legal terms if a woman buggered a man using some sort of artificial penis.

2007-11-04 06:10:29 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Yes. Either a man or woman can be charged with rape, which legally means use of sexual organs against the victim without his or her consent. Homosexual rape (i.e. somebody using sexual organs against somebody of their own gender without that person's consent ) is also a crime legally.

2007-11-04 05:52:08 · answer #9 · answered by cimex 5 · 0 0

Yes I am sure there are statutes on the U.K. law books that say a man can be raped by a man or a woman.

2007-11-04 05:43:17 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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