How can you prove that there exists a real number c independent of n such that
a^n >= c*n^(k+1)
where a is a positive real, k is a positive integer, and c is independent of n, so that it is true for n=1,2,3,...
I've tried letting a=1+b and using the binomial expansion and it seems to help, but i'm still getting stuck. i think it will be to do with sequences and limits etc as well.
thanks
2007-11-04
01:37:46
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1 answers
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asked by
mongrel73
1
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Mathematics