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I signed my deed to my house over to a neigbor I trusted as he promised to sign it back to me (he paid my taxes and I signed over my deed until I could get a piece of my property he wanted surveyed and split up) he promised to sign it back to me but ended up selling it. Keep in mind that I only signed my deed to him I never did a contract on what was in the house!!!! So he sold the house and on our moving day the new owners who are real ASSHOLES and sue happy watched us moving everything out of the house, when we tried to take the washer, dryer, and refrig. they called the cops and said that the appl. were in there contract that my neighbor did with them when they bought the house so the cop would not let us take them even though we had the recipt for the washer and dryer. Was my neighbor aloud to sell my personal belongings when I never sold them to him????? Please help.

2007-11-03 11:44:56 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Business & Finance Renting & Real Estate

I understand that this was a VERY stupid thing to do, and I have learned my lesson in a very bad way, the only thing I want to know is if I can sue my neighbor for selling my personal items or did he have right to sell them just because he had my deed? The deed states that he only gets the lot (property) and the parcel (house) so what right did he have to sell my personal stuff that I have the recept for?????

2007-11-03 15:02:37 · update #1

5 answers

You were ignorant, and lost your home.

If you signed the deed over to him for a bogus thing like a survey to split up property he wanted you were not blessed with a lot of smarts, sorry to say. Signing the deed to him bypassed a contract, and the house became his, and it became final. He got over on you. He sold the house with your stuff on a contract to someone else, and it's a really sad thing.

It's like if you sign your car title over to me it's now my car. If you did not know what you were doing, and can prove your mental incompetence in court I may have to return your car per a court order.

You may want to play that card, and see if that works for you.

Don't want to sound harsh. I know it's probably been a tough situation for you, and your family. Too bad you did not come to Answers before you did that.

Everybody does not know everything, but everybody needs to know someone to go to when they don't have a clue, even me!

Please call a Real Estate Attorney Monday am, hun.

2007-11-03 12:19:50 · answer #1 · answered by Credit Expert 5 · 1 0

Since you declined any inspection, you bought 'as is' based upon what you saw. That being said, an inspector would not have been able to determine insulation level either, since such is not visible. The inspector cannot 'dig into' walls to check insulation. The sellers were probably in the same boat. If they didn't tear out bathroom walls for any reason, THEY didn't know the insulation levels either. As for the ice on the bathroom window, that is quite normal, especially in a climate as in Minnesota. A bathroom is a very moist room, and ice will easily form on a cold window, just as a bath mirror will fog up after showering or bathing. Do NOT assume that the sellers were dishonest. They bought the house and fixed it up for resale. Doing so does NOT mean that they have to tear everything apart to check for insulation levels. You do not indicate the age of the house. However, if it dates to earlier than 1970, the insulation levels used during those times were nowhere near what is used now. What can you do ? Have the house re-insulated. Also put in a new window in that bathroom.

2016-05-27 05:38:36 · answer #2 · answered by gladis 3 · 0 0

Why in the name of God did you sign your deed over to your neighbor? Are you totally insane?? Once you did that, you no longer owned the house! Your neighbor was free to do ANYTHING with the house he pleased!

About the only thing that remained yours was your personal property, including the washer, dryer and fridge.

When you signed the deed over to your neighbor he became your landlord and you became his tenant. Your personal property remained yours and he had no authority to sell that.

The cop was totally wrong to interfere in what was clearly a civil issue, not a criminal one. You have a claim with both the buyer of the home and your neighbor. Your neighbor had no authority to sell your personal property and the buyer is not its legal owner as a result, regardless of what his contract with your neighbor says.

2007-11-03 12:49:37 · answer #3 · answered by Bostonian In MO 7 · 1 0

Basically, you gave your house to your neighbor when you signed over the deed. A contract of sale gets the ball rolling, and protects both buyer and seller by specifying the terms of the sale transaction. Signing over the deed happens subsequent to a contract of sale. Ditto on the previous thread, you need to see a lawyer.

2007-11-03 12:07:19 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

you need a lawyer.

2007-11-03 11:53:02 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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