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I thought f-inverse didn't exist if f wasn't 1-1 but my homework doesn't think so. Any thoughts?

2007-11-03 09:17:23 · 2 answers · asked by UMRmathmajor 3 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

The inverse is √W(y) where W(y) is the Lambert W-function, defined as the inverse of xe^x. There is no way to express the inverse in terms of classical functions.

If you mean the function (x²)^(x²), that's even worse, and will still involve the W(y) function.

Maybe I'm not reading your expression correctly, or you have it written down wrong?

2007-11-03 09:25:15 · answer #1 · answered by Scythian1950 7 · 0 0

x = ±√[W(y)]

2007-11-03 16:26:45 · answer #2 · answered by Dr D 7 · 0 0

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