If we are to take f as having a domain of the set of Real Numbers, then it is not one-to-one. Therefore, it is *not* invertible.
However, if we restricted the domain of f to only the non-negative numbers, and codomain to non-negative numbers, then f would be invertible, and sqrt would be its inverse.
It's a bit of an annoying technicality, but it really matters what the domain of the function is. You could define a function by using an expression that can be evaluated at all real numbers, but if you declare that the domain of a function f(x)=x^2 as being positive integers, then f(0) doesn't even exist; the function only takes positive integer inputs.
2007-11-02 20:12:57
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answer #1
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answered by J Bareil 4
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It does.
What you want to do is start with your equation f(x) = x^2. We can rewrite this equation in terms of x's and y's like this:
y = x^2
To find our inverse, we want to swap our x's and y's. So instead of:
y = x^2,
we have
x = y^2.
So, solving for y (again), we get that:
x = y^2
+-sqrt(x) = sqrt(y^2)
y = +-sqrt(x)
So it IS the square root of x. But technically, it has a plus or minus.
The only issue with that is whether or not the inverse is actually a FUNCTION. See, the way we determine whether the inverse of a function is a function or not is by using the HORIZONTAL LINE TEST (not the vertical. That's different). If we draw horizontal lines through the graph of f(x) = x^2, we see that any horizontal line is going to hit the graph twice which means the inverse we get (sqrt(x)) isn't actually a function.
So the inverse WOULD BE sqrt(x) but that inverse isn't actually a function.
That's the only issue I can see. Does that make sense?
2007-11-03 01:51:31
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answer #2
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answered by twigg1313 3
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The inverse of f(x) = 1/x^2
Therefore when x=2, the inverse of f(2) = 1/4
But, you are saying that the inverse of f(x) = sq rt (2) = 1.414
so, the inverse of f(x) is not the sq rt of x.
2007-11-03 01:56:17
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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lets set f(x) = y, therefore y = x^2, the inverse would just be
x = sqrt(y), which is not the square root of x
2007-11-03 01:51:40
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answer #4
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answered by superman 4
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It is not one-to-one
inverse function is symetric according to the line y=x
2007-11-03 01:54:18
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answer #5
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answered by iyiogrenci 6
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