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on this question I asked yesterday. What do you think?

http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=AiqUuSnFymlPCcSbQrSoKYnsy6IX;_ylv=3?qid=20071102052735AAmwevZ

2007-11-02 16:27:06 · 1 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

1 answers

If the second derivative has the occasionally 0 point in an interval where it's otherwise negative, that surely doesn't keep the function from being concave down.

If you have a weird situation where the first derivative is decreasing, then constant for a while, and then decreases again -- well, I'd still call that "concave down", but I wouldn't argue hard for my point.

2007-11-03 22:46:14 · answer #1 · answered by Curt Monash 7 · 0 0

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