Can anyone do Logic?

Question

Just for fun, I was doing a proof of propositional logic, but I got stuck trying to prove that Pv(QvR) implies (P&Q) v (P&R).

I tried assuming the negation of (P&Q) v (P&R) --in order to negate that later and get (P&Q) v (P&R)-- but it's not getting me anywhere... anyone know the answer?

Answer 1

It isn't a true statement.
Suppose Q is the only true statement.
Then the antecedent is True and the consequent is false. This makes the implication false.

Answer 2

Pv(QvR) is not logically equivalent to (P&Q) v (P&R).

P&(QvR) is logically equivalent to (P&Q) v (P&R) through distribution.