2007-11-01 14:31:09 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
As Dixie pointed out, there is a chance there is a small amount of alcohol in it, but the way U.S. labeling laws work, if the amount of something--fat, caffeine, alcohol, sugar, impurities, whatever--in a product PER SERVING is below a certain threshhold, you can say it's whatever it is-free. So if each serving of near beer has less than that threshhold of alcohol, the company can say it's alchol-free, even though it may have a very small percentage
2007-11-01 16:56:51 · answer #1 · answered by VeggieTart -- Let's Go Caps! 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I didn't know you had to be?? Maybe that differs from state to state.
If so, the reason would probably be because there actually is a small amount of alcohol in 'non-alcoholic' wines and beers. It's a very small amount, around 1% content by volume, but still technically there.
2007-11-01 21:40:08 · answer #2 · answered by lmn78744 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
because alcahal is BAD FOR YOU IN THE LONG RUN!!
see my spelling
not a little bit never hurts untill people go and drink and drink and drink and drink. I know because we have one in the family. so why not make a law so kids can not mess up there life until they have lived a quorter of it off.
2007-11-01 21:40:18 · answer #3 · answered by DRAGON 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
he's right
"near bear" is still considered an alcoholic beverage
2007-11-01 21:41:19 · answer #4 · answered by paladinamok 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
non alcoholic beer is pretty dumb
2007-11-01 22:06:59 · answer #5 · answered by ? 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
because it actually does have a very small amount of alcohol in it.
2007-11-01 21:37:01 · answer #6 · answered by dixie58 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋