I own two houses in seperate school districts, both of the school districts are having a special election in regards to school revenue. I want to vote in both of the elections but they told me I can only vote in my primary residence and not the other. I pay property tax on both houses so why can I not vote on each of the referendums? Voting will decide if an increase in your property tax will take affect. It just seems you should be able to vote on the issue regardless of your primary residence. Does anyone have an idea on this or know the law? The houses are located in Minnesota. Any legal help would be great. Thanks.
2007-11-01 04:33:16 · 3 answers · asked by Pete R 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Elections
You earn your right to vote based on your citizenship, not on your property ownership.
I currently rent and I voted in the last election that included school levies.
A foreign national that owns property does not get to vote in the election even if the live in a house on that properly.
2007-11-01 04:36:50 · answer #1 · answered by davidmi711 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The law states you vote where your primary residence is, not where you own property. The people you rent to can vote in the other district. You have to live at least 6 months out of the year at a residence for it to be your primary, and then, you still only get one vote. (You are not a more equal person just because you own more than one house. That goes against our country's Republic.)
2007-11-01 04:38:34 · answer #2 · answered by gigglings 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It seems to me that if they are separate districts and they are local votes you should have a voice in both. If they are separate referendums.
2007-11-01 04:49:18 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋