Perfectltangel had the proof right, but she didn't say why it actually does not prove that 1 = 2.
Check it out:
a = b
a^2 = a*b
a^2-b^2 = a*b-b^2
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)
Right here! To get from the step above to the step below, you are dividing both sides by (a-b) right? Scroll down for more...
(a+b) = b
a+a = a
2a = a
2 = 1
Well, if a=b, then (a-b) = 0. Dividing both sides by zero gives you an undefined result. Therefore, the rest of the proof is not valid, and 1 does not equal 2. But you can fool some of the people some of the time :)
2007-10-31 14:38:44
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answer #1
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answered by Maybe Next Year 3
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There are many examples in Math to show that 1 is equal to 2, but the logic is flawed. I suggest you pose this question in the Math section to get better answers.
Since this question is in Words and Wordplay, I would say that one (pair) means two and so one is equal to two!
2007-10-31 21:29:59
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answer #2
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answered by greenhorn 7
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One (1) CANNOT be equal to Two (2) in any realistic mathematical way.
You might have got tricked by some flawed proof.
Every rule in maths will go haywire if that were the case. Use your common sense, and dont get swayed by irrational mathematical illusions.
2007-10-31 23:22:51
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answer #3
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answered by Supreme_Guru 3
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a = b
a^2 = a*b
a^2-b^2 = a*b-b^2
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)
(a+b) = b
a+a = a
2a = a
2 = 1
2007-10-31 21:28:10
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answer #4
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answered by perfectltangel 4
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The question is "two whats?" If they happen to be "halves," the truth of the statement will emerge eventually.
2007-10-31 21:24:57
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answer #5
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answered by picador 7
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aww :( i used to know how, we did this last year in Algebra 2 Honors, sorry man :(
2007-10-31 21:24:15
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answer #6
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answered by ddyllann0757 1
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Ask a newzealander - especially a moari or islander....they will tell you excatly
2007-10-31 22:13:46
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answer #7
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answered by moonswamy 1
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