2007-10-31 12:03:18 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Biology
Yes, provided there was no somatic mutation during the course of development.If, on the other hand somatic mutation did occur, then all the descendant cells would have slightly altered base sequence. depending upon what kind of mutation there was. In gametes however the amount of DNA is half the amount in somatic cells.
2007-11-04 03:11:07 · answer #1 · answered by Ishan26 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Although the DNA code from cell to cell is the same, there are many different types of cells within the body, each with a specific function. For example, the long, narrow muscle cell is designed to contract, the branching neuron is designed to send and receive electrochemical impulses, and the squarish cell that lines the wall of the small intestine is designed to filter nutrients from food.
2007-10-31 12:10:02 · answer #2 · answered by RevaGanapathy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, for every cell *except* the germ cells (egg or sperm) and the immuno-related cells.
The egg and sperm cells are haploid (only one copy of each chromosome) and have had the DNA shuffled between the two sets of chromosomes before this division occurred.
In the T-cells and B-cells, shuffling in the genes involved with producing antibodies takes place so that each cell can produce a different and distinct antibody. The changes in the genes are permanent.
2007-10-31 12:07:05 · answer #3 · answered by Wally M 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes as long as it is from the same person, then the dna of every cell (which is found in the nucleus of the cell) would be the same.
2007-10-31 12:07:34 · answer #4 · answered by linda r 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
yes
2007-10-31 12:13:32 · answer #5 · answered by bholukalu 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋