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PTC testing. Why is it common to be a taster than to be a non-taster?

2007-10-31 08:35:49 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Biology

3 answers

I think the gene for non-tasters is recessive, that would make the most sense.
Fun fact: I'm a non taster!

2007-10-31 08:40:17 · answer #1 · answered by jenabel 4 · 0 0

The gene to be a taster is dominant, which means that someone would have to have 2 recessive allelles to be a non-taster. If T = taster and t = non-taster, TT and Tt would equal a Taster, and only tt would equal non-taster. That means 3 out of 4 possibilities according to a punnett square would be taster, i.e TT, Tt, Tt, and tt. Parents would have to be Tt x Tt (with only 1 in 4 chance of non-taster) or Tt x tt (2 in 4) or tt x tt (4 in 4 being a non-taster)
I am also a non-taster, but the rest of my family are tasters, which makes my parents heterozygous, or Tt.

2007-10-31 08:47:48 · answer #2 · answered by dmc 3 · 0 0

The taste is very bitter, and that's the taste of many poisons. People with the taster gene would avoid eating poisons more reliably than nontasters. So tasters would have better survival rates and produce more offspring who are also likely to be tasters.

2007-10-31 08:42:59 · answer #3 · answered by ecolink 7 · 1 1

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