2007-10-31 06:49:06 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
i think so.....half is half...lol
2007-10-31 06:51:59 · answer #1 · answered by kbenson55 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends if your spouse is giving money towards the bills, if he/she is paying 1/2 the morgage then fair is fair 1/2 from the value when u r married is there let me explain if u buy a house for $100 and at the time of marriage u still owe money on it and it's worth $100 and then they pay 1/2 of the morgage and years later it's worth $300 then the $200 is split fair is fair or to avoid that sell then get married or get a new place. u cant have someone pay 1/2 the bill and months or years later the house is paid for and the other person has nothing,
2007-10-31 07:02:27 · answer #2 · answered by GRUNT 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Most states declare that what was your before marriage remains yours after marriage. Some states don't care and say that everything must be split in two unless there is a prenuptual agreement or both parties agree that that belongs to a certain person. Call around for a dicorce lawyer in your town because they are the only person that can tell you for certain.
2007-10-31 06:56:04 · answer #3 · answered by MJ 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It all depends on if your spouse is on the deed. Did you add her after you got married? If so, you could very well lose the house or be forced to sell it and split the money with her. I would contact an attorney if I were you.
2007-10-31 06:59:45 · answer #4 · answered by Kathy R 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
unfortunately, yes. However, I was advised that should you go to the courts the judge will consider what you contributed financially towards the marriage prior to you getting married and that is true. (UK), you will need evidence mortgage statement etc
2007-10-31 06:55:12 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on how you're married. If you're married in Community of Property, then yes, 50 / 50. If you've got an ante-nuptial contract then you shouldn't. As far as I know, in this case what was yours before stays yours, ad=nd theirs stays theirs.
Good luck! =D
2007-10-31 07:03:22 · answer #6 · answered by Ethan-Mikyle's Mommy! 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Unless you had a prenuptial agreement, you can most definately lose your home. All property becomes community property once you are married...
2007-10-31 06:56:40 · answer #7 · answered by missapparition 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hunny, fi she paid on the House then she is also intitled to half, usually you can just pay her and keep your home, next time pre-nup.
2007-10-31 07:00:16 · answer #8 · answered by eeyore6838 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
depends on who made the payments after you were married and if the house was in both of your names at the marriage
2007-10-31 06:59:40 · answer #9 · answered by oh_jo123 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
depends on if it was paid on during the marriage. and if you live in a comunity property state.
2007-10-31 06:54:29 · answer #10 · answered by womanofghostbear 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
who's name is on the deed? If only yours then he can try to but dont think he can win
2007-10-31 06:52:50 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋