According to the answer for question number 4:
http://www.cis.hut.fi/Opinnot/T-61.5100/laskarit/dkkexer2_ans.pdf
If I interpret it correctly, it uses the ~ symbol to represent proportionality. Is this a correct symbol for proportionality?
Thank you very much.
2007-10-31 03:25:27 · 3 answers · asked by I need answers 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Thank you very much!
2007-11-01 07:56:38 · update #1
Not in my experience. "~" indicates "approximately" while "proportionality" is indicated by "α".
Given the context of the question, I think that my interpretation is correct.
2007-10-31 03:29:00 · answer #1 · answered by gebobs 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I prefer the tilde, "~". That is the symbol used in geometry to indicate triangles which scale to one another (similar triangles), hence it makes sense to use it for proportionality.
2016-05-26 04:45:11 · answer #2 · answered by flor 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hi,
I think that you'd be better off for x proportional to y
x=ay, or something similar.
~ can mean congruent which is not the same thing as equal to.
Hope that helps,
Matt
2007-10-31 03:34:24 · answer #3 · answered by Matt 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋