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I did the quotient rule for both and obviously it didnt work... >.< please help

2007-10-29 14:36:57 · 1 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

1 answers

You really didn't give us enough detail.

Two obvious general ideas that may or may not apply in your case:

1. Prove that each of them is greater than or equal to the other.
2. Prove that (f-g)' = 0

2007-10-29 18:55:20 · answer #1 · answered by Curt Monash 7 · 0 0

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