2007-10-29 12:06:46 · 2 answers · asked by Catherine B 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Yes, Since 1829. Section 2.01, Florida Statutes:
"2.01 Common law and certain statutes declared in force.--The common and statute laws of England which are of a general and not a local nature, with the exception hereinafter mentioned, down to the 4th day of July, 1776, are declared to be of force in this state; provided, the said statutes and common law be not inconsistent with the Constitution and laws of the United States and the acts of the Legislature of this state."
History.--s. 1, Nov. 6, 1829; RS 59; GS 59; RGS 71; CGL 87
2007-10-29 15:10:46 · answer #1 · answered by mcmufin 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes.
Only Louisiana partially isn't -- they have a mix of civil law and common law.
2007-10-29 19:10:31 · answer #2 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋