English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

With reference to political considerations.

2007-10-29 04:30:53 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

8 answers

Not right away. They were used in Japan because the US was facing a very long and costly invasion. So they used the A-bombs to try to shorten the war.

Germany was generally collapsing at a good rate between the western Allies and the Russians. Also, the only real way to use the A-bombs to shorten the war would have been to bomb Berlin, killing Hitler and his cronies. And the Russians may not have approved of their prize being wiped off the map.

2007-10-29 05:28:52 · answer #1 · answered by rohak1212 7 · 0 0

Considering the fact that atrocities by the Germans were discovered after their surrender, I doubt that the atomic bomb would have been used if it were available prior to Overlord. I am sure that the word would have reached the Reich and somehow test results and graphics would have conveniently found their way to Germany.

2007-10-29 11:39:14 · answer #2 · answered by googie 7 · 0 1

... yes.

The atomic bomb was intended for Germany. There is little reason to believe that it would only have been used on Japan -- certainly the Western Allies were quite satisfied to level cities through conventional bombing.

2007-10-29 12:01:04 · answer #3 · answered by Miracle Robot 2 · 0 0

While nuclear weapons are quite gruesome for their long term effects.
More damage was done prior with firebombing cities.
Tokyo Hamburg Berlin just to name a few.
Since it followed up on firebombing in Japan. I would assume it would have been used in Europe in the same fashion.

2007-10-29 13:27:17 · answer #4 · answered by Kaustaub 4 · 0 0

It's possible, the radioactive fallout involved wasn't fully understood yet, so it might even have been used in an attempt to destroy the Atlantic coast and English Channel defenses.

2007-10-29 11:34:30 · answer #5 · answered by 29 characters to work with...... 5 · 1 0

Yes. Originally there were two bombs. It has been suggested that one was for Germany and one for Japan.

2007-10-29 11:34:34 · answer #6 · answered by tugar357 5 · 1 0

Probably, yeah.

Certainly FDR knew that the bomb was going to be a possible weapon, since he authorized its development. Its unlikely he was thinking about it only for the Japanese.

2007-10-29 11:34:26 · answer #7 · answered by Elana 7 · 1 0

I dont believe so.

2007-10-29 11:33:54 · answer #8 · answered by HarleyD 3 · 0 1

fedest.com, questions and answers