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Is there a relationship b/w the Huns and the Mongols? Both were originally Turkic that grew in number through a coalition with other Turkic tribes. I've also heard that modern day Hungarians are descendants of the Huns. If this is true, then why don't they look more Asiatic, especially when considering the Huns were present in China?

2007-10-28 15:33:11 · 3 answers · asked by Lobo man 2 in Arts & Humanities History

Hmm. "Recent genetic research[2] shows that each of the great confederations of steppe warriors was not an ethnically homogeneous people, but rather an ethnic union of Ural-Altaic (Turkic, Tungus, Mongol, and Finno-Ugric) clans. Hun identity is further complicated by the fame of the name, as apparently many clans claimed to be Huns for the prestige of the name. Similarly, Greek or Latin chroniclers may have used "Huns" in a more general sense, to describe social or ethnic characteristics, believed place of origin, or reputation.[2] "All we can say safely", says Walter Pohl,"is that the name Huns, in late antiquity, described prestigious ruling groups of steppe warriors".[2] These views come in the context of the ethnocentric and nationalistic scholarship of past generations, which often presumed that ethnic homogeneity must underlie a socially and culturally homogeneous people.[3]" -Wiki

2007-10-29 15:56:18 · update #1

"It is generally believed that the first Turkic people were native to a region extending from the Caspian Sea in the west across Central Asia-Turkestan to Mongolia in the east, Siberia-Altai in the north, and Kashmir in the south[citation needed]. Some scholars contend that the Huns were one of the earlier Turkic tribes, while others support either a Mongolic or Finno-Ugric origin for the Huns.[14] The main migration of Turks, who were among the ancient inhabitants of Turkestan, occurred in medieval times, when they spread across most of Asia and into Europe and the Middle East.[15]"- Wiki

2007-10-29 15:56:34 · update #2

Yep. So basically, no one really knows much about the Huns origins, except that the were probably of Ural-Altaic origin, which in part constitutes the Mongolians as well, being that both Turkic and Mongolic languages are part of the Altaic family.

2007-10-29 15:59:13 · update #3

3 answers

Ok this is from what i know.

the Huns came from the same plains as the tartars and were warring with them often. Under Attila and his brother they managed to get the Huns united under one leader hence making it possible for them to be a major threat.

They did not MOVE their base to the Hungarian area until later in Attila's life when he was attacking Both Roman territories just not at the same time.

I think that is why most do not look Asian in nature. There is also no proof positive that He himself was Asian looking, They were all from the steppes where Siberia is and their whole Hun nation was a mix of nationalities from all over. It makes sense that they were not of all one race to me.

Even being present in China made no difference, they were a very diverse people and when he died they more or less went back to there old ways and slowly dissolved as a power and then next the Mongols came around.

You see these peoples all came from the same region of the Siberian area but not the same exact spot. It is a known fact the Tartars fought with both the Huns and Mongols.

If there is a relationship between the Huns and Mongols I am unaware of it but that does not make it impossible for i am no expert on this subject of history I know the basics.

Hope it helped!!

2007-10-28 15:53:05 · answer #1 · answered by Legend Gates Shotokan Karate 7 · 0 0

First of all, you're mistaken about the Huns and Mongols being originally Turkic.

The Turks come from the Indo-European group of nations. The Huns and Mongols do not. They are from the Sinitic populations. This ethnic group, is best distinguished by their slanted, squinted eye-lids.

The Sinitic peoples are those of the Far East: Mongolia, China, Japan, etc..

As far as the present day Hungarians not looking like their Hun ancestors, I would presume that the reason for this is historical intermarriage with the European ethnic stock.

You have to remember, that the Huns invaded and settled in Europe, back in the days that witnessed the total collapse of the Roman Empire in the west. That was approximately 1500 yrs. ago.

Hope this helps,

Wotan

2007-10-28 16:14:51 · answer #2 · answered by Alberich 7 · 1 1

Not directly. What would be called Turkish tribes (from Turkestan, not modern-day Turkey) were really people of Mongolian build. They followed behind the Goths, Franks, and Vandals, and were indirectly the cause for these peoples migrating into the Roman Empire. When they finally made their "big" move with Attila, he did set up his capitol in Hungary, and there was intermarraige with the local people at that time. However, the main migration of the Magyars, from who Hungary derives its name and culture, did not occur until 3 or 4 centuries later.

The Mongols who conquered China in the 1100s and crossed Asia into Europe (strangely enough to Hungary) are related to the Huns through race but are 800 years separated in history.

2007-10-28 15:52:17 · answer #3 · answered by cattbarf 7 · 1 0

From what I know. The Hungs are Turkic. In ancient Chinese annals I think they're known as the Hsiung-Nu. They migrated West after China finally beat them out of Manchuria and modern day Northern China.

Hungarians are related to the Huns. They're Magyar. Their original population lived in Russia, beyond the Ural Mountains. They also speak a Finno-Ugric tongue which is spoken in Finland, Northern and Central Russia to some extents. The Magyar migrated in the vacuum of the Hunnic migrations

2007-10-28 16:12:16 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

The Huns weren't Turkic, but Asiatic. The modern Hungarians are descendents of the later Magyar people not the Huns.

2007-10-29 06:01:48 · answer #5 · answered by 29 characters to work with...... 5 · 1 1

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