2007-10-26 12:03:04 · 6 answers · asked by yashar_feizi 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
October 13 546 ad
October 13 1245
October 13 1295
October 13 1545
October 13 1546
October 13 1547
October 13 1549
October 13 1550
October 13 1613
October 13 1849
2007-10-26 12:19:03 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Actually, for the doubters above, this is a good question. I suspect a teacher is teasing you with this. I do the same in the college history classes I teach.
Pope Gregory XIII in 1582 declared that October 5th would become October 15th. Not all countries followed suit immediately because all European countries were not still Catholic in 1582. Britain did not move up its calendar until 1752 - which is why the person above listed 1752 for the year with the ten days when nothing happened. Russia only updated its calendar after the Revolution in 1918 - because they were Eastern Orthodox and did not listen to popes.
The "Julian" calendar devised under Julius Caesar in 46 BC provide for a year that was 11 minutes and 14 seconds too long, so this had to be corrected to keep the calendar dates in line with the seasons - the equinoxes and so on. By 1582 the Julian calendar was ten days ahead of the season. That's why Pope Gregory decreed the adjustment. Stubbornness prevented non-Catholic countries from correcting the obvious error in the calendar at that time.
2007-10-27 01:07:51 · answer #2 · answered by Spreedog 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Is this about the transition to the new calendar? I know Britain and her colonies didn't adopt it until well after the Catholic countries did. The 1750s sound about right, since Washington was born in 1732 and his birthdate is usually listed as either old calendar or new calendar, with different dates of course.
You probably know that there's an 11 day difference between the two, and it was created because Julius Caesar had left off the fraction of a day that is included in the calendar we use now and the reason we now have an extra day added in February every four years.
2007-10-27 01:00:07 · answer #3 · answered by william_byrnes2000 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Impossible that such record exist. If you know it say it so.
Is the one who gave dates sure that in some tribe of Amazonian Indians no one was born?. Who kept such records?. What about births amongst Arapahoes on the move in the plains of the present USA??. Some Swazi mother didn't gave birth to her child in a remote village in Africa but waited until after?? Who can possibly have an accurate record of that??
Even today it is not possible to know, absolutely sure, how many births and how many deaths will occur. Also, take into consideration PLACE. At the moment of writing this, its 30 minutes since Oct. 27 started in London, UK. It is 4:30 PM of October 26 in Los Angeles. So, what date would you take into consideration. If a baby was borne at this very moment, his birth in th UK occured in Oct. 27 while in Los Angeles he is being born in Oct. 26.
Come on!!
2007-10-26 19:13:04 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 0⤋
No one born in between 13th and 23rd of September 1752
Do you know that no one born in between 13th and 23rd Sep 1752.
Actually the so called 11 days does not exist in the calender. Those are called as GHOST DATES
2007-10-26 19:12:17 · answer #5 · answered by Frosty 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Someone's pulling your leg man.
2007-10-26 19:10:22 · answer #6 · answered by Nothin' Special 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋