what is the difference between sex and rape. when married couple does it is it not rape?
if husband doesnt want to do and wife insists for doing then what is it called?
only from ladies.?
2007-10-26 05:51:23 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Health ➔ Women's Health
The definition of Rape applies to both parties.
So when husband says NO and wife forces, it is also rape (non consensual sex). Only need to report it and bring it to court..... sure win case
2007-10-26 06:38:50 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Rape is really forcing someone to have sex. It is more of a power thing that a sexual thing and it can happen in a marriage. If a partner is very insistant and you feel obligated, it is not rape but is still a power issue. You need to talk with your spouse. This is not normal healthy behaviour. Maybe some counselling? Good health.
2007-10-26 12:57:17 · answer #2 · answered by waltnsue2000 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No matter who is doing it, if someone refuses then it IS called rape. Sex is a consensual matter and thats it. There are times in my marriage when my husband wants it and I dont really feel like it but I do it with him anyways and if this is what you mean this is NOT rape because I am consenting.
2007-10-26 13:32:37 · answer #3 · answered by Lale 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Rape is when a person forces another person to have sex or do other sexual acts against his/her will. So a husband can rape a wife, if the wife doesn't want to have sex.
2007-10-26 13:18:55 · answer #4 · answered by drshorty 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hi,
As per law any sex done without the consent of the lady is called rape. Lady could be any one including wife.
Enjoy Life
2007-10-27 05:34:52 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
ANYTIME, in marriage or outside of marriage, a man has sex with a woman who is not willing to do it that time, it IS rape.
With women to men, it's a bit more difficult to define. I would consider forcing a man to perform oral sex or penetrating them without their consent, within a marriage, to be rape. What the laws are with that, who knows. Outside of marriage, I would consider a woman using blackmail/coercion of some sort to get a man to have sex with her as rape, in addition to the things I mentioned before. This is just my opinion, however.
2007-10-29 12:48:46 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Even betrween husband and wife, sex against consent will be treated as rape in court of law.
2007-10-27 03:11:54 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You might want to know that rape can happen between married couples. This happens a lot in abusive relationships.
If one person does not consent to sex but the other forces that person into sex, then it is rape.
2007-10-26 12:55:08 · answer #8 · answered by A.Mercer 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
there is never a time a man can get raped....he will always like the shmorgesboard of flesh presented to him...but lets just assume ur husband really doesnt want to have sex with u...i cant imagine why....then it still isnt rape because once he used to want to have sex with u...thats why he put that ring on ur finger...and that means no rape ever...never ever ever...even though his desire might have changed for some unexplainable reason...its not the 200lbs weightgain....noooooooooo
2007-10-29 19:29:27 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the word "NO" is involved, and yet sex is forced, then that would be classified as rape. Rape is officially defined as NON-consensual sex, committed upon an unwilling party of either gender.
Married or not, if your partner doesn't want to have sex, and the partner has clearly and directly said NO, then that should be the end of it.
2007-10-26 12:55:00 · answer #10 · answered by Brutally Honest 7 · 8⤊ 0⤋