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10 answers

[07]
sin^2 +cos^2 of any angle is always 1
The answer,therefore,is 1.

2007-10-26 04:26:44 · answer #1 · answered by alpha 7 · 0 0

sin 60° = √3 / 2
cos 60° = 1 / 2
sin ² 60° + cos ² 60° = 3 / 4 + 1 / 4
sin ² 60° + cos ² 60° = 1

2007-10-26 06:03:50 · answer #2 · answered by Como 7 · 1 0

Sin(60) = (sqrt3)/2.

squaring this you have 3/4

Cos(60) = 1/2

square this you have 1/4




3/4 + 1/4 = 1

I would suggest getting the sin, cos, and tan of the more common angles put to memory. Know 0, 30, 45, 60, 90. You can also use the unit circle and law of sines to figure them out. Remember the hypotenuse is always 1 on the unit circle.

Right! Remember your trig identities, I forgot to mention that!

2007-10-26 04:34:17 · answer #3 · answered by Milo 3 · 0 1

You would use the trignometric relationship that (sin(any angle))^2 + (cos(any angle))^2 = 1.

In this case (sin 60)^2 + (cos 60)^2 = 1

Checking that answer using a calculator yeilds:
(sin 60)^2 = 0.75
(cos 60)^2 = 0.25
(sin 60)^2 + (cos 60)^2 = 0.75 + 0.25 = 1

2007-10-26 04:29:16 · answer #4 · answered by LSEaves 2 · 0 0

From Trigo Identity, sin^2 (x) + cos^2 (x) = 1,
where x is arbitrary angle.

Alternative, you can replace
sin 60 = 1/2[Sqrt(3)]
cos 60 = 1/2

2007-10-26 04:29:02 · answer #5 · answered by cllau74 4 · 0 1

Sin 60° = √3/2
and
Cos 60° = 1/2

so
(Sin 60°)² + (Cos 60°)²
= (√3/2)² + (1/2)²
= (√3)²/2² + 1²/2²
= 3/4 + 1/4
= 1

,.,.,.,.,.,.,.,..,.

2007-10-26 04:27:48 · answer #6 · answered by The Wolf 6 · 1 0

(Sin 60)^2 + (Cos 60)^2
= (Surd 3/2)^2 + (1/2)^2
= 3/4 + 1/4
= 1

2007-10-26 04:29:56 · answer #7 · answered by lkl916 1 · 0 1

The point of this problem is that you use trigonometric identities. As the other answers indicate,
(Sin x°)² + (Cos x°)² =1

This holds true no matter what value you use for your angle, as long as both Sine's angle and Cosine's angle are the same.

2007-10-26 04:29:53 · answer #8 · answered by Moderator 2 · 0 1

It is a standard trigonometric equation dude
Sin^2 Q + Cos^2 Q = 1
Q can be any angle
so ur answer is 1.

2007-10-26 05:58:51 · answer #9 · answered by gauravragtah 4 · 0 1

sin(A)^2 + cos(A)^2 = 1
The answer is one.

2007-10-26 04:24:47 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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