I'm a realtor, and I have a client with an existing mortgage who's selling on land contract. My client's mortgage is fixed at 5.375 and they're charging the buyer 8.5% on a 30-year amortized three year baloon. The buyer thinks they should be able to deduct their interest, but somehow the idea that both can deduct the interest doesn't sound like something that would fly with the IRS. Anybody with experience in something like this? Thanx.
2007-10-25
11:43:26
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2 answers
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asked by
commktr
1
in
Business & Finance
➔ Renting & Real Estate