It says in HP7 that Gryffindor is a descendant of Ignotus Peverell (Apparently Gryffindor was named after the village, not the other way around.) But how could Gryffindor, who had helped found Hogwarts about a thousand years ago (according to Prof. Binns in book 2) be a descendant of Ignotus Peverell, who founded Godric's Hollow in the 1600s after the International Statute of Secrecy (according to Hermione's research in book 7)?
2007-10-24
17:54:36
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2 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
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Arts & Humanities
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Okay, maybe I am wrong about who was first, but that won't change the fact that that is what I think I remember from the book. But I know it does say DIRECTLY, somewhere in the book who came before who (Hermione was reading a history book). Can someone give me the page because I don't know where to find it.
2007-10-24
18:48:52 ·
update #1
Never mind, I think I found the source of my confusion. Godric's Hollow was not founded after the International Statute of Secrecy; according to http://www.hp-lexicon.org/wizworld/places/godrics_hollow.html it already existed and simply attracted a new population of wizards. This means that Ignotus did not found Godric's Hollow and I am wrong about Ignotus being older. So a thousand years ago Gryffindor lived and established Hogwarts, then he had a descendant 650-odd years later named Ignotus Peverell. It all makes sense to me now.
2007-10-25
14:06:17 ·
update #2