Is the judgement that certain government actions or policies are tyrannical (Such as how M.L.K. viewed segregation laws), purely subjective? Is there any objectivity to this?
2007-10-24 13:03:07 · 4 answers · asked by Matt W 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Ethically speaking there needs to objectivity in this matter. If racism were only subjectively wrong than there would be no reason to upset at its presence. Example- you could not get mad at me for liking the taste of garlic (tastes are subjective.) You could get mad at me if I told you that the U.S. is located on the African Continent, because that is objectively wrong. We can not be mad a person for believing something that only matters the them self.
2007-10-24 13:48:02 · answer #1 · answered by spartanmike 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The formation of a law is objective. the enforcement of a law can be objective or subjective. It depends on the reasoning.
I came up to a stop sign, but nobody was there. Do I stop because it is the law and people are supposed to be under the law, or do I run the sign because the law is meant to serve the people, and I am the only person to be served?
2007-10-25 01:21:52 · answer #2 · answered by Dr weasel 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on the government's constitution
2007-10-24 20:30:27 · answer #3 · answered by craukymuvilla 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think most laws are fair.
2007-10-24 21:47:02 · answer #4 · answered by donielle 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋