2007-10-24 10:43:35 · 3 answers · asked by hello.mate 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
The first die can be anything.
The second die has 5/6 chance of being different
The third die has 4/6 chance of being different from these two numbers.
So the total probability is:
1 x 5/6 x 4/6 = 20/36
Reducing:
P(numbers all different) = 5/9 ≈ 55.55%
2007-10-24 10:48:57 · answer #1 · answered by Puzzling 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Including Reflections there are 216 possibilities. 6 of them include 3 identical numbers thats 1/36 for that. 90 of them include 2 identical numbers 15/36. the remainder(120) have no identical numbers 20/36. so your answer is either 20/36 or 35/36.
2007-10-24 14:10:03 · answer #2 · answered by stanmann 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1/6 [one sixth ] because there are three dice and six different #'s .
2007-10-24 10:53:57 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋