My friend married a man 12 years ago that has a home in Illinois. Now he has refinanced it and she was the main signer for the new loan (refinanced). Now meraculiously he wants a divorce. her name is on the loan, but not on the deed. What is her legalities? Along with this she has paid cash for him a corvette, and a new pick up truck. They don't even live in the house. They live in another state ( TX), and she pays the rent for an appartment there in her name only. She has been out of state taking care of her terminally ill father for the last 6 months, she has had to take a 12 month leave from work for this, and the after responsibilities of when dad passes in IL. while he is in TX working , not helping her, and partying all the time. What to do???
2007-10-24 06:43:06 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
She needs a lawyer. Property rights vary from state to state, and depend on whether or not the real estate was considered the marital home. It's unusual that a lender would allow her to take out a loan against the property if she is not on the deed as an owner, but it can happen. That basically means she is responsible for a debt that is secured by something that she doesn't own. One thing I can tell you is that he won't be able to sell that property without paying off that loan.
She needs a good lawyer, who can find out what she is responsible for. She should start getting rid of this freeloader right away.
2007-10-24 06:50:41 · answer #1 · answered by sarah jane 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Get a new man and a good divorce lawyer. He took her for a big fat ride.
2007-10-24 06:46:38 · answer #2 · answered by nwest1999 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No you that's for sure.
2007-10-24 06:46:39 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋