2007-10-24 05:59:14 · 4 answers · asked by T-Luv 4 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
from your question itself answer can be given,
if f(x) = -1 => x = f^-1(x), i mean F inverse (x)
2007-10-24 06:08:00 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
There is nothing in f(x)=-1 that constrains x to be real. X could be complex, transfinite, quaternion, tensor, or white bunny rabbits. Therefore x is the set of all sets.... which is a problem in itself.
2007-10-24 13:38:59 · answer #2 · answered by ZikZak 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In math terms.....all real numbers, which means anything you want it to be.
Since your function is a constant "-1" it remains this value no matter what value you wish for 'x', because there is no dependency on x at all.
Does this help?
2007-10-24 13:12:20 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The range of x is all real numbers. Hope that helps! Next!
2007-10-24 13:03:58 · answer #4 · answered by gebobs 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋