2007-10-23 20:34:41 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Very good question in which I have no concrete answer.
2007-10-24 16:43:44 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
"THE WORD of GOD" is linked specifically to Judeo-Christian writing. Hence if the question includes God as identified in that religion's context, does it not contain its own answer that God likes to be entertained by speculative thinking? This could point to a tremendous omniscient sense of humor by which God has a punchline to each person for a mutual laugh when the delivery and timing works for the divine comedy.
2007-10-24 20:07:08 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Using long words and asking about religion could confuse some. Also questioning the agenda of methodological interpreters could get you burned at the stake.
2007-10-24 11:12:28 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Too many Religions. Too many versions of the Bible.Too many interpretations of who God is .Too many different answers on just about anything in the Bible.In other words, a complete mess.God has told us what to do but you will not find it in the Bible.
2007-10-24 06:04:41 · answer #4 · answered by ROBERT P 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
It's arrogance, yes, but clarification is not forthcoming from any other source. (Do the ETs handle the job with greater proficiency?) Let’s just abandon judgment entirely. :-)
Theoretically speaking, would it be possible for Mankind to *invent* impartiality? Or does anything created by Man share Man’s subjectivity? And if that’s the case, what is the implication for *our* subjectivity, if we were created by god? Or is that just one of our "flaws"?
2007-10-24 11:48:58 · answer #5 · answered by Ms Informed 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Your premise may be wrong.
Religions are not based on "THE WORD of GOD", THE WORD of GOD is based on religion.
2007-10-24 04:41:49 · answer #6 · answered by Temple 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
exactly, please tell me that :)
2007-10-24 06:18:25 · answer #7 · answered by Charlotte d'Allemagne 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋