when a lease is considered lapsed, that means any&all things agreed to in the lease are void also? including attorney fees! because there really is no lease. right? im not sure if i worded that rite or not but hopefully someone understands it?
2007-10-23 15:51:10 · 4 answers · asked by ED C 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Renting & Real Estate
Wrong. As long as the renter still pays rent and the owner continues to cash the rent the lease is valid and considered to be month to month.
2007-10-24 06:11:28 · answer #1 · answered by Landlord 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Wrong. If you write a check one month after the expiration and the owner cashes it, then you have a tenant landlord relationship based on the rules of the lease. The difference is its a month to month relationship, rather than an annual one. All the rules of the lease apply
2007-10-23 16:13:55 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 0⤋
It sounds like you are kidding yourself. When a lease is no longer valid you are still responsible for the property, if you are allowed to live there on a month to month basis. It also means that you forfeit any lease security deposit you may have paid, if you have defaulted on your lease. Therefore if you've been irresponsible and owe money for rent or repairs you can still be taken to court and made to pay all expenses involved, including attorney's fees.
Also, many leases renew themselves if no one wants to terminate the lease.
2007-10-23 16:09:56 · answer #3 · answered by Jann 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
It depends on the wording of the original lease.
If the lease says that is converts to a month to month tenancy upon expiration of the original term, then all terms within the lease are still valid.
If the lease does not automatically convert, then you are a month to month tenant and your tenancy is ruled by your state's landlord tenant laws.
2007-10-23 16:43:36 · answer #4 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋