In other words, can I take each one independently (a=2 and b=3) as opposed to a fraction only (a/b=2/3 or b/a=3/2)?
2007-10-23 10:55:42 · 9 answers · asked by Tams4Gmat 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
No. All that this says is that the value of a is 2/3 the value of b. B is any number which is 1.5 times the value of a, except for zero. This doesnt mean that a=2 and b=3.
2007-10-23 11:05:26 · answer #1 · answered by I Need Help 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No because a=4, b=6 and a=20, b=30 and many other permutations are all correct for a/b = 2/3
2007-10-23 18:04:26 · answer #2 · answered by Philip W 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Sorry, Prettyme; but I must disagree.
If a = 4 and b = 6, then a/b = 2/3. You cannot assume the individual variables in this case; you can only conclude that the ratio between them (in this case a/b) is equal to 2/3.
Hope that made sense.
2007-10-23 18:03:14 · answer #3 · answered by Tim P. 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes it's the same thing if A/B = 2/3 then a=2 and b=3
2007-10-23 18:07:57 · answer #4 · answered by Mrs.Frank Sinatra 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
No, you can't. if a/b=2/3, there are limitless possibilities.
a=2, b=3
a=4,b=6
a=8,b=12
...
a and be could be any number that is a multiple of both 2 and 3.
2007-10-23 18:10:57 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
no you are unable to assume that since a could be 6 and b could be 9 so when you reduce it it equals 2/3
2007-10-23 18:02:35 · answer #6 · answered by pinoypride333 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I say no, what if a=4 and b=6
2007-10-23 18:03:44 · answer #7 · answered by young_buck_gurl 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, you can assume that because if a is on the top and the 2 is on the top, the same thing goes with the b and the 3 being on the bottom. you are correct in your assumption.
2007-10-23 18:00:40 · answer #8 · answered by justme 3 · 0⤊ 3⤋
yes
2007-10-23 18:03:12 · answer #9 · answered by ~*★*♥*★*♫*★*♥*★*~ 4 · 0⤊ 3⤋