Well... wtihout involving into other... functionals... or maybe we better consider them too... Well... I am hoping your answers will come handy...
2007-10-23 05:54:13 · 3 answers · asked by Robert M Mrok (Gloom) 4 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
Almoore... special thank you for answer... but... I will wait a bit more... eh... I guess I am dreaming about miracle... but I guess faster I will see men living on Mars than it will happen ;p
2007-10-23 06:36:57 · update #1
I think I must work out diffrent questions for my... theory... This one I must let on voting... I think I hear a lot about crashes cos of too simple equotation of gravitation... Well.. it was invented here on Erath surface... Not enough experience since we still stick here... Hmmm... Sorry for so heavy question... I will be more careful next time :)...
2007-10-25 09:22:11 · update #2
No, although gravity involves two separate masses they can be equal. Basically, all object are attracted to one another by a force that is proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. There is a constant thrown into the equation as well but I don't remember it off the top of my head. So the more mass that an object has, the more objects are attracted to it. The further objects are away, the less attracted they are.
2007-10-23 06:09:58 · answer #1 · answered by loginnametaken 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The force of attraction between any 2 objects, mass m1 and m2, is given by
F = G*m1*m2/r^2
where G = 6.67*10^-11 n*m^2/kg^2 and r is the distance between them in meters. We thank Isaac Newton for this relationship.
It is entirely possible/acceptable that m1=m2. If there is a planet somewhere exactly with the same mass as the earth -- yes, there is a gravitational attraction between them. Small because of the distance, but it exists.
2007-10-23 16:14:57 · answer #2 · answered by sojsail 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No.
:-)
2007-10-23 13:05:27 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋