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When an inherited estate is under two family names(a partnership)and there has never been an agreement signed. No one living at property, needs a lot of work. We verbally agreed to sell the home "as is".
When the other party chooses to turn on utilities in there name (NO ONE LIVING THERE) and adds up expenses by chosing to work on the property, without discussing it or without an agreement. They say we have to pay half back to them. My name is on the house deed that's all.
Am I legally liable to reimburste half of the expenses they chose to put into the house when the property is sold, without a signed agreement?

2007-10-22 14:10:00 · 2 answers · asked by Debbie C 1 in Business & Finance Renting & Real Estate

2 answers

They would have to sue you for the money, and would most likely lose as you did not consent to the expense in the first place.

They may get the power paid though, as you generally need the power and water on for inspections while selling.

2007-10-22 14:20:24 · answer #1 · answered by Landlord 7 · 2 0

I'd quit whining, were I you, or you might find yourself with a bill for half of their time invested in working on the property. Remember, the work being done will benefit YOU in an increased sales price.

2007-10-22 14:20:40 · answer #2 · answered by acermill 7 · 0 0

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