When an inherited estate is under two family names(a partnership)and there has never been an agreement signed. No one living at property, needs a lot of work. We verbally agreed to sell the home "as is".
When the other party chooses to turn on utilities in there name (NO ONE LIVING THERE) and adds up expenses by chosing to work on the property, without discussing it or without an agreement. They say we have to pay half back to them. My name is on the house deed that's all.
Am I legally liable to reimburste half of the expenses they chose to put into the house when the property is sold, without a signed agreement?
2007-10-22
14:10:00
·
2 answers
·
asked by
Debbie C
1
in
Business & Finance
➔ Renting & Real Estate