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what is the history of it?

2007-10-22 13:16:40 · 3 answers · asked by tay 1 in Politics & Government Government

3 answers

In Article I -- states are prohibited from having standing armies, but may have militias. The 2nd Amendment guarantees that those militias may be armed, clarifying what would otherwise be a potential contradiction. That's the legal reason.

There is also the philosophical reason is that the Framers were afraid of a federal govt that would take over -- and they believed that allowing people to bear arms would keep the states safe from being totally controlled by the federal govt.

2007-10-22 13:37:03 · answer #1 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0 0

According to an 18th century political radical, the purpose is to prevent tyranny by the government.

It also allows us to defend ourselves, our families and our property. Police agencies do not exist for the purpose of protecting each of us as individuals. They exist to protect society as a whole. At some point, we become responsible for our own safety. If we wish to walk in the light of day and not hide from it, we may at times have to defend our right to do so.

A question for you now: What was the immediate cause of the opening battle of the American Revolution? I will answer that another time, if you don't know or can't find out.

The above-referenced political radical was named Thomas Jefferson, by the way.

2007-10-22 20:36:23 · answer #2 · answered by Tom K 6 · 1 0

We have the second amendment so when the government becomes too oppresive the people can overthrow it. However, most politicians don't understand that and try to get elected toting gun control and exploiting peoples fears and insecurities.

2007-10-22 20:43:38 · answer #3 · answered by mannzaformulaone 3 · 0 0

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