this is a little philosophy question here.. if the indians beat the yankees, then the red sox beat the indians, did the red sox really beat the yankees in the process?????
2007-10-22 05:05:53 · 16 answers · asked by the bison 3 in Sports ➔ Baseball
it does in fact, because if your playing the same team and one loses and the other wins it proves the other team is better =]
2007-10-22 05:09:55 · answer #1 · answered by sig-MTD 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No! The indians beat the yankees. The red sox did not play the yankees. Therefore the red sox did not beat the yankees.
2007-10-22 12:10:56 · answer #2 · answered by Do Something Brave 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, and if the Indians had played the Red Sox with the same intensity and urgency that they played the Yankees with, they would have beaten the Red Sox.
2007-10-22 12:39:26 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No I think the Yankees/Red Sox series would have been really good, you can't measure the rivalry between those teams...I think that series would have gone the distance. The Yankees would abuse basically everyone in the Red Sox starting rotation other than Beckett.
2007-10-22 12:09:18 · answer #4 · answered by DANNY D 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Only if the Red Sox go on to win the World Series - then they can say they've beat everybody. Otherwise they've just come up short like every other team.
2007-10-22 12:08:52 · answer #5 · answered by jfbroc 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You might think so ,but each team presents different match ups and therefore different results. For example Tampa Bay beat the Yankees, this does not make the Rays the second best team in the east.
2007-10-22 12:12:22 · answer #6 · answered by katbalou 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You should look up the Transitive Property of Equality.
If you used the Transitive Property of Equality then what you say would be true. But sports are much different than numbers and math so the Transitive Property of Equality.
My old high school teacher Mr. Turner would be so proud that 10 years later I still remember the Transitive Property of Equality.
2007-10-22 12:10:02 · answer #7 · answered by Jeseth 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes!!!! They would have done it either way because Alex Rodriguez would have flopped in the LCS against Red Sox pitching. That would have been really entertaining to watch.
2007-10-22 12:09:04 · answer #8 · answered by djchacho 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You're describing the transitive property. It works in mathematics, but not in sports.
2007-10-22 12:09:57 · answer #9 · answered by bencas9900 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, that's obvious.
Simple logic, irrefutable.
2007-10-22 13:02:37 · answer #10 · answered by zeal4him 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋