2007-10-21 16:36:08 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
No. You *may* be entitled to alimony (if you meet the requirements for it), but not because your marriage has been lacking in sex--that has nothing to do with it.
2007-10-21 17:01:33 · answer #1 · answered by kp 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You are entitled to alimony according to the law guide-lines of your State.
Each State is different. Some States require a couple to be married for a certain numbers of years befor they qualify for alimony .. and alimony payments may be limited.
2007-10-21 23:41:57 · answer #2 · answered by Tara 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Alimony in this day and time? Thought that was a thing of the past. Even so, I don't think no sex would entitle you to anything, but would be a reason for divorce.
2007-10-21 23:44:48 · answer #3 · answered by onceisenoughilearnedmylesson 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋
The frequency of your sex has nothing to do with your entitlement to alimony.
2007-10-21 23:42:07 · answer #4 · answered by onyx1 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Sex has nothing to do with it. Check with a lawyer in your state as to what the guidelines are to receive alimony.
2007-10-22 00:08:05 · answer #5 · answered by dcdaniel1968 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Here is what constitutes alimony... (I have been through it) If you are unable to live in the same level of earnings as when you got married he has to pay you alimoony for a substantial amount of time.... Get a good lawyer it will be worth it... Grant M in Pennsylvaia
2007-10-21 23:48:42 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
What you're entitled to has more to do with which state you live in and less to do with why you're getting divorced.
2007-10-21 23:40:14 · answer #7 · answered by sarah jane 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It would entitle you to be guilty of adultery. If your spouse has not committed adultery as reason for your divorce, anyone you are with after him even if you marry them, you will be committing adultery and you will cause them to also commit adultery.
2007-10-21 23:49:14 · answer #8 · answered by Sweet Suzy 777! 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I am not sure how would you prove such thing. Sex tapes? A hidden camera in the bedroom? LOL
2007-10-21 23:48:30 · answer #9 · answered by terliuke 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Eh..having sex will never equate alimony..............cause if it did wouldnt it be payed by both parties.....if he aint given chances are he aint recieving either..........so who is entitled here ?
2007-10-21 23:40:24 · answer #10 · answered by hghostinme 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋