Proof (cartesian product, domain off, codomain of F?

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Proof (cartesian product, domain off, codomain of F?

Let f: X->Y be a function, and suppose that x0 exists in X and y0 exists in Y and satisfy (x0, y0) exist in f. If (x,y) exists in f and x != x0, then y != y0.

I really have no idea what I am even supposed to prove any explanations would be greatly appreciated :)

2007-10-21 14:04:57 · 1 answers · asked by jay d 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics

1 answers

I'm sorry. There are too many typos there for it to be clear.

Is the function supposed to be 1-1 or something?

2007-10-21 15:53:48 · answer #1 · answered by Curt Monash 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋