It stated in an article that government has control of airwaves
does anyone know where this is stated?
2007-10-21 12:06:02 · 4 answers · asked by Crono431 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Government
Communications Act of 1934
2007-10-21 12:10:03 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The government has controlled the use of the use of radio (and all other) frequencies. The purpose of this is to prevent senders of radio signals from interfering with each other's signals. I am 80 years old, and this has been going on since before I can remember.
2007-10-21 12:18:34 · answer #2 · answered by Bibs 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes. You can research this by examining the Telecommunications Act of 1996.
2007-10-25 11:40:31 · answer #3 · answered by BeachBum 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, i think that they do ...FTC might have something to do with it . they control the waves/ spectrum that can be used. some is for gov. only . some is for public com. 911 system. trans uses some.
i think cell phone companies pay government for use ?
2007-10-24 00:27:24 · answer #4 · answered by Mildred S 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋