English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

i wondered this when i heard he had a very intellectual mind.

2007-10-21 08:22:16 · 16 answers · asked by Omar 1 in Society & Culture Cultures & Groups Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender

16 answers

Why does being an intellectual automatically mean you're gay?
Asking a question like this makes me wonder if you are a moron.

In some of Shakespeare's poetry there are references to a young man he cared for in a non sexual sense but was betrayed by him with a "dark lady" whom Shakespeare is belived to have loved.

2007-10-21 08:32:27 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4 3

First of all your question is that of a moron and most likely comes from an American (U.S.A.)

Intellectual does not equal gay. Bill Gates is straight, and he's one of the modern geniuses

What's funny, is your question makes it look like all or most straights are morons. I'd have to agree for the most part on that one (sarcasm)

And thirdly, who gives a rats --- if Shakespeare was gay? Why is it so important to people whether they were gay or not
I've heard that Shakespeare was bisexual, leaning to the straight side, and while he may have kissed many guys on stage and wrote poetry for them, that doesn't make him gay. That actors on Sopranos play violent gangsters, does that make them gangsters in real life? ----NO!

Leonardo Da Vinci was gay and Greg Louganis is gay. There, you feel better now?

2007-10-21 20:50:06 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Many have used Shakespeare's sonnets as an argument that he was gay. (They can be broken into two groups-the dark lady and the boy, with the boy sonnets being used as evidence of his homosexuality). We do know Shakespeare was married and had children, although none of his children lived to adulthood. Bisexuality has been popular in many times throughout history. Homosexuality has always existed. It's entirely possible that Shakespeare was either gay or bi, but since he is long dead and left no evidence to prove he was gay or bi, there is no way we will ever know. It really doesn't matter if he was straight, bi, or gay. What matters is that he left us with some of the most brilliant literature ever written. We should enjoy his work for what it is and not care if he was gay or not. Sexual orientation is no more important or notable than someone's hair color.

2007-10-21 15:45:54 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

An "intellectual mind" is not an indicator or prerequisit for homosexuality.

However, Shakespeare had the undoubted exposure to it whether he was a homosexual or not. It was too weird for words to the minds of polite company in those days--all of the female characters in the Globe theater were males. It simply was too unthinkable for a woman to be on stage like that.

The idea isn't too very strange, even in relatively recent days. I had an aunt who was dying and my mother was going through old books and pictures together. They came across a picture that neither had seen in a long, long time. "Suppose that is her?" They both asked repeatedly. It seems that there was a female relative who went off to Hollywood to be in then-silent pictures as an actress, she had been disinherited. That was in the 20th century, imagine when it would have been all the worse for a woman to be on stage.

That aside, if you have read Shakespeare's works, his romantic poetry, then you would find the unmistakable evidence pervasive, Shakespeare was definitely hetero. That is not to say that he didn't kiss or hug a man, his role as an actor made that definite too. But there is a difference between loving a person in private life and acting a part on stage.

2007-10-21 15:32:24 · answer #4 · answered by Rabbit 7 · 2 3

What an awesome question. I love that you only heard Shakespeare had an intellectual mind and don't actually know for yourself.

Shakespeare may have been gay or he may not have been, but either way, it turns out both gay and straight people can be intellectual.

2007-10-21 15:27:48 · answer #5 · answered by Miss Brown 4 · 4 3

No, he had a wife and many kids, The gay activists equate shakespeare with gays because he often had very young boys dressed as girls in some of his plays , but this was because women were forbidden to act and had nothing to do with homosexuality.

2007-10-21 16:49:34 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

He had a wife with whom he was very much in love, and he had children with her. That's all I know. I don't think his sexuality has anything to do with his intellect. I don't care whether he was gay or not; he was a great playwright and poet.

2007-10-21 15:29:55 · answer #7 · answered by Iggy 5 · 3 2

Last year I did a bit of research and I discovered he was speculated to be bi because he wrote peoms about "men's beauty." It's not for sure because there really is no evidence to back it up.

2007-10-21 15:46:59 · answer #8 · answered by doesheknowilovehim 1 · 2 2

In your mind intellectual equals gay?

Interesting.

I assume you are straight.
.

2007-10-21 15:25:37 · answer #9 · answered by ABB 6 · 5 4

He was most likely bisexual. He certainly married a woman, but his 20th sonnet says:

A woman's face with Nature's own hand painted
Hast thou, the master-mistress* of my passion;
A woman's gentle heart, but not acquainted
With shifting change, as is false women's fashion;
An eye more bright than theirs**, less false in rolling,
Gilding the object whereupon it gazeth;
A man in hue***, all 'hues' in his controlling,
Much steals men's eyes and women's souls amazeth.
And for a woman wert thou first created****;
Till Nature, as she wrought thee, fell a-doting,
And by addition me of thee defeated,
By adding one thing to my purpose nothing.
But since she prick'd***** thee out for women's pleasure,
Mine be thy love and thy love's use their treasure.

*The first clue that this "woman-like" person is not necessarily female; the person is a "master-mistress," indicating androgyny.
**"theirs"; we know now that the person referred to in the sonnet cannot be a woman, since he is not part of the group mentioned earlier.
***The person is a man.
****Shakespeare is saying, "You were meant to be a woman because I love you and I'm a man."
*****"prick" meant penis. Basically, Shakespeare is saying that Nature added a penis to her creation (the object of Shakespeare's affection) to give pleasure to women.

The whole sonnet is Shakespeare's struggle to grasp how it is that he, a man, is in love with another man.

2007-10-21 15:44:30 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 3

fedest.com, questions and answers