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Wouldn"t a male have to be YY (which of course is not possible) to be 100% male?

I know that female is the default sex, and that for the first few weeks in the womb all are female to start with. Basically are all males bisexual because all are part female anyway?

2007-10-20 20:18:13 · 3 answers · asked by Nathan 4 in Science & Mathematics Biology

3 answers

And actually one of the 2 X chromosomes in the somatic cells of a female is inactivated. This doesn't happen to either the X or the Y in the somatic cells of a male.

2007-10-20 20:55:24 · answer #1 · answered by BP 7 · 2 0

If you assume that y chromosomes cause maleness and x causes femaleness. But this is a bad assumption. There are significant genes in the x chromosome that are needed just to be human let alone a specific gender. Your point oversimplifies the issue.

2007-10-21 03:31:36 · answer #2 · answered by Roy E 4 · 3 0

These chromosomes don't determine the gender. X and Y chromosomes represent different factors of our genes that are responsible for our traits and not necessarily gender. We call these factors allele.They may represent color blindness and other inherited traits.

2007-10-21 04:36:52 · answer #3 · answered by Jazers 2 · 0 0

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