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Why were slaves not imported to Mexico and Argentina. What made the above destinations not popular for slave trade. I'm just curious. I'm not saying I wish they had because slavery was cruel but it surprises me that the above latin american countries do not have a black population....having in mind that other latin american countries have a big black population. Many say they mixed so much that they dissapeared, can this happen?

2007-10-20 17:26:43 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

8 answers

Slaves from Africa were imported to these countries, but never in the large numbers like in the United States.

In Mexico, the Native population was decimated by the diseases brought over the Spanish conquistadors. After the native population was decimated by epidemics and forced labor, black slaves were imported.

The majority of the Spanish colonists were men with no wives available and married or made concubines of the natives, and were even encouraged to do so by Queen Isabella during the earliest days of colonization. As a result of these unions, as well as concubinage and secret mistresses, a vast class of people known as mestizos and mulattoes came into being. Mestizos were of mixed European and Native American parentage, and Mulattoes were of mixed European and African parentage. A system was created to keep each mix in a different social level: El sistema de castas (the casta system). This system is still largely ingrained in Mexican society today.

In Argentina, African Slaves were imported for the same reason as in Mexico; Native Americans had been decimated by European diseases and the Colonists needed labourers to replace the natives.

During the colonial era in Argentina, descendants of African slaves were present in significant numbers, but of most eventually merged with the broader population. Indigenous peoples inhabited the mountainous northwestern and remote southern regions.

Beginning with dictatorship of Juan Manuel de Rosas from (1829-1852), the Argentine government began programs of racial cleansing. Blacks and Native Americans were either killed or forced into exile. At the same time, foreign investment and immigration from Europe exploded. During this time, Argentina attracted the same amount Immigrants from Western Europe as the the United States!

Most of the Blacks and Native Americans banished from Argentina fled to Brazil, contributing to the racial mix there, while Argentina became largely White. This remains pretty much the same way today.

Hope this helped,
Peace.

2007-10-20 17:59:10 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

There are a few blacks in Mexico but most were assimilated. Mexico had a large population used to heavy work so there was no need to import slaves.
Argentina is a different story. It was a very small place till after the slave era had passed. Incidentally the indians were all killed in a 5-year campaign of genocide.

2007-10-20 17:57:30 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

Spanish had indigenous Indians as slaves there. Where there was not then would take them there but it was about profits and they had to be justified. Some places in Mexico have black decedents along pacific side.

Also the Spanish were making too much money running the blacks and selling them to the Americans, British, Portuguese or west,or east Indies companies.

Portuguese were bringing in black slaves into Brazil

2007-10-20 17:47:34 · answer #3 · answered by Bri 3 · 1 1

How they got there is a story all in itself. Christopher Columbus brought African slaves with him to what he believed to be the Indies. There, the slaves were allowed to marry and live with the natives and that makes up a lot of the "black" appearances of the people. The whole story is very interesting and full of prejudice. I became aware of it when I spent 13 months in the Dominican Republic.

2007-10-20 17:38:14 · answer #4 · answered by Annie 2 · 0 1

Maybe it was because the Spaniards had already enslaved the native population of those areas and therefore had no need for the African slave trade.

2007-10-20 17:34:06 · answer #5 · answered by claudiacake 7 · 1 2

because those countries suck soooooooooooo much the blacks would rather be slaves

2007-10-21 00:20:31 · answer #6 · answered by SPCPerz 3 · 0 7

thats where you are wrong!! there are blacks in those countries and they are 100% purebloods

2007-10-20 17:30:12 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 5

because they could never afford slaves

2007-10-20 17:29:21 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2 9

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