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I mean if his wife is Queen Elizabeth II why is he a Prince, not a King. What am I missing?

2007-10-20 15:52:19 · 21 answers · asked by frank5254 1 in Society & Culture Royalty

21 answers

Bc they only believ in queens there, hes really nothing of importance

2007-10-20 15:55:22 · answer #1 · answered by Yoni 1 · 0 7

It is in the written law of the royalty/protocol.If the crown is the woman meaning the one born by birth like Queen Elizabeth,she is a woman so her husband cant get the title King only Prince but if the crown is a man then his wife will get the title Queen.
Like Diana and Prince Charles,if Lady Diana is still alive,the moment Prince Charles will become the King then Diana will get the title Queen...but there is different rule applied to Camilla,she cant get the title Queen because of some reasons...which is not yet official. sorry for her anyway

2007-10-21 21:57:19 · answer #2 · answered by Phillippine Princess 2 · 0 0

Prince Philip could be titled as "King Consort" if Queen Elizabeth II wanted to, however it is still only a courtesy title. King consort is a title given in some monarchies to the husband of a queen regnant. Nowadays, it is a symbolic title only, the sole constitutional function of the holder being similar to a queen consort, namely to produce an heir to the throne. Spain, Portugal, England and Scotland have all had kings consort; however, since the rank of king normally outranks that of queen, in most monarchies the queen's husband is given the title of prince or prince consort instead.
When Prince Philip first married to then “The Princess Elizabeth”, he was only styled as “His Royal Highness The Duke of Edinburgh.” It was only until 1957 when Philip was finally styled as "His Royal Highness The Prince Philip, Duke of Edinburgh". The Queen has never granted the Prince Philip the title of Prince Consort and it was speculated that she would on their 60th anniversary.

2007-10-21 13:46:41 · answer #3 · answered by Rachelle_of_Shangri_La 7 · 0 0

Phillip was not the heir to the throne. Elizabeth, daughter of King George VI, was the heir and is the reigning monarch. Since the reigning monarch is queen, no one else can have a title higher than "Queen" ;the title "King" implies a reigning monarch, which won't do because Elizabeth is the reigning monarch. There is no such title as King-Consort for husband of the monarch, so Philip, a royal prince of Greece and Denmark and a cousin to his wife must use the title bestowed upon him,which is Prince Consort.

2007-10-21 13:40:02 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Good question. If Prince Philip were to hold the title of 'King', then he would be the reigning monarch. He is not. Queen Elizabeth II is the reigning monarch of the UK. In royal rank, a king always outranks a queen. As such, the consort of a reigning Queen is given the title of Prince.

2007-10-23 15:24:49 · answer #5 · answered by Shayna 5 · 1 0

Royal titles are within the royal prerogative and so the Queen may make her husband King Consort if she chooses but she has never so chosen.

In English history, there were two queens who were married and whose husbands became King of England. Both were married to a Queen Mary.

Mary Tudor’s husband was Philip, Prince of Span and Austria and later King of Spain. Philip was to be styled "King of England", all official documents and Acts of Parliament and Parliament was to be called under the joint authority of the couple.

Later, Mary Stuart and her husband were invited to be Joint Monarchs and when Mary died, her husband continued to reign in his own right as William III/II.

Similarly, husbands of the Queen of Scots, such as Francis II King of France and Henry Lord Darnley were both styled "King Consort Scotland". Mary's third husband, James Lord Bothwell did not have any title of consort though and neither was George of Denmark when he was married to Anne of Scotland and England.

Therefore, at the time of Queen Victoria's marriage, her government was faced with the precedent of the husband of a reigning queen being a King Consort and another precedent of his not having any British title. They decided that public opinion would not permit him to be King Consort and in fact he was not given any English peerage but was made Prince Consort in order that he be a British Price (as opposed to a German one). He is the only person to have received this title.

When Elizabeth II became queen, it was decided that the precedent of Victoria be followed; Philip was already a Prince of the United Kingdom so no new title was necessary to make him a British prince.

2007-10-22 16:32:20 · answer #6 · answered by Adrian F 3 · 0 0

The wife of a King is always a Queen. The wives of every King of England have been Queens and they have their own crowns. They are usually crowned at the same time as their husbands. When Charles becomes King, Camilla will be Queen. These queens are queens consort not queens regnant but they are still queens. The wife of Edward VII was Queen Alexandra; the wife of George V was Queen Mary; the wife of George VI was Queen Elizabeth. With Kings it is easy, his wife is the Queen.

With Queens regnant it is a different matter. For a start there have only been six in English history if we ignore the unfortunate Queen Jane. The first was Mary I. Her husband, Philip of Spain was declared King (whether regnant or consort is unclear). The second was Elizabeth I who never married so the question didn't arise. The third was Mary II, the daughter of James II. Her husband was co-regnant as William III (William of Orange). The next queen was Mary's sister Anne but her husband was not offered the title. Victoria wanted the title for Albert but Parliament refused to grant it so Victoria asked that consorts of future queens not give the title to their husbands and Elizabeth II followed her wishes.

Even in Scotland, Lord Darnley, the husband of Mary Queen of Scots and father to James I of England was referred to as the king. It is quite possible for the husband of a Queen regnant to be called King, there is a strong precedent for it. It is, however, unlikely that the title will ever be used again as the last three husbands of English queens have not had the title.

2007-10-21 03:14:36 · answer #7 · answered by tentofield 7 · 7 1

The wife of a male monarch (i.e. a king) is a queen. The husband of a female monarch is generally a prince, at least in England. Husbands of Mary I, Anne and Victoria were all called prince. (Mary II was the exception in ruling in tandem with her husband)

"King" denotes a monarch. Philip is not the monarch.

2007-10-21 20:20:56 · answer #8 · answered by Nightwind 7 · 1 0

Also, just to be clear, Camilla will never be crowned Queen. In the event that Prince Charles does become King of England, Camilla will still be referred to as the Duchess of Cornwall, just with the title Princess Consort attached to it.

2007-10-21 17:55:26 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Because he isn't king. He's the consort (royal spouse) of a reigning monarch. He was born a prince of Greece and Denmark, and after marrying Elizabeth was known for many years as the Duke of Edinburgh. Later, Elizabeth gave him the title of Prince.

Sandi

2007-10-21 16:47:09 · answer #10 · answered by sandirs 3 · 1 0

because the British crown is in the Queen hand. If the British people called prince Phillip as a King, people at world will be confuse since usually the crown is in the hand of a King not a Queen. This situation happened when Henry VIII only had one sick boy; so, he asked the Parliament made his daughter as the Queen of England and therefore, England would not have a king (but a Prince instead)

2007-10-20 22:57:56 · answer #11 · answered by Michael 3 · 0 3

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