i^42 = -1
Method:
i^42 = i^40 * i² = (i^4)^10 * (-1) = 1^10 * (-1) = -1
2007-10-20 13:30:43
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answer #1
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answered by Pascal 7
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If you mean i=sqrt(-1), and want to consider what i^n is, let's start with lower powers and extrapolate from there.
n=0: i^0 = 1
n=1: i^1 = i
n=2: i^2 = [sqrt(-1)]^2 = -1
n=3: i^3 = i^2 * i = -1 * i = -i
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n=4: i^4 = i^2 * i^2 = -1 * -1 = 1
n=5: i^5 = i^4 * i = 1 * i = i
n=6: i^6 = i^4 * i^2 = i * -1 = -i
So notice how n=4 gives the same answer as n=0 and how n=5 gives the same answer as n=1, etc. This means that the sequence is cyclical going {1, i, -1, -i, repeat}.
For higher values of n, you just need to figure out where in that cycle of four you fall. If n is divisible by four, then it's as if n=(0 or 4), so the answer is 1.
If n isn't divisible by 4, consider the remainder. If it's 1, then it's like n=(1 or 5) so the answer is i.
When the remainder is 2, it's like n=2, so the answer is -1. Finally when the remainder is 3, the answer is -i.
In your case: n = 42, which is not divisible by four. Instead, your remainder from 40 is two, which means your on the second point of the cycle. Hence, i^42 = -1.
2007-10-20 20:30:33
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answer #2
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answered by brownian_monkey 2
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Well i^4 = 1
42/4 = 10 with a remainder of 2 ( means that the cycle will repeat 10 times).
That means there are 2 "i"'s left
i*i = -1
So i^42 = -1
2007-10-20 20:54:55
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answer #3
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answered by james w 5
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Sinnce i^4 = 1, we have
i^42 = (i^4)^10 * i² = i² = -1.
2007-10-20 20:43:14
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answer #4
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answered by steiner1745 7
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i one, i one, negatives in the middle.
1 i
2 -1
3 -i
4 1
So, divide 42 by 4, giving 10.5, the .5 corrolates to a remainder of 2, so the answer is -1.
2007-10-20 20:31:06
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answer #5
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answered by stnicholas6496 4
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