In what situation would In Rem jurisdiction be valid when in personem jurisdiction would not?

Question

I know that this RARELY happens, but could you give me an example of when it does?

Answer 1

Coragryph is exactly right, as usual. More specifically, we see it occasionally in cases of a judicial foreclosure of a junior lien, for example, when personal service cannot be obtained. In that instance, we move the court to allow summons by publication. If the suit is successful, we can get an order and decree for foreclosure, but not a personal judgment for the amount owed.

Answer 2

One example -- if the suit is against a defendant which owns real property (land, buildings) in one state -- the state court has jurisdiction over the land and buildings, even if they cannot get personal jurisdiction over the defendant.