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2 answers

You do not indicate any restrictons on a,b,c,d. Can they all be the same? Is 0 allowed?
I believe 2 is an ordinary prime.
We could have a=b =1 and c=d=0
41 = 5^2 +4^2 +0^2 +0^2
43 = 5^2 +4^2 +1^2+1^2
47 = 5^2 +4^2 +2^2 +(sqrt(2))^2
53= 5^2+4^2 +3^2 +(sqrt(3))^2

I think if there are no restrictions on a,b,c,d the statement is true. But if there are restrictions, it is probably not true.

2007-10-19 17:42:56 · answer #1 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 0 1

I believe this is Lagrange's four-square theorem. Here's a link with its proof:

http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/ProofOfLagrangesFourSquareTheorem.html

2007-10-20 03:20:03 · answer #2 · answered by absird 5 · 1 0

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