English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

My apartment's contract states in the fine print that I need to give 60 days' notice to vacate. When I asked for clarification of the terms on vacating the premises, I was not shown or referred to the 60 days notice in the contract. Instead, I was given a verbal explanation that mislead me into believing that I did not need to give such notice. Am I out of luck, or should I fight this?

2007-10-19 04:54:31 · 7 answers · asked by a link to the past 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

Asking for clarification occurred after I signed the contract. I asked for clarification one month ago, and signed the contract 9 months ago.

2007-10-19 04:55:38 · update #1

Indeed, it is a contract. A 15-pager with two separate sections on vacating, the relevant one which was only written in 6-point font.

2007-10-19 05:00:13 · update #2

7 answers

In most states, that part of a consumer contract that is not set in 8-point or larger type is disregarded. It's a form of procedural unconscionability.

2007-10-19 05:21:38 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

They are not obligated to help you to read the fine print in the contract. It is your responsibility to make sure that you understand what you are signing - even if it is 15 pages long and in 6 point font. A verbal explanation by someone after you signed the contract will not hold up in court. This time you really dont have much of a leg to stand on to fight about this. In the future, take your time in reading a contract even if you have to ask to take it with you and return the signed copy later. It will save a lot of misconceptions and confusion later.

2007-10-19 12:06:12 · answer #2 · answered by Diane M 7 · 0 0

You are out of luck for two reasons:

1) You signed first and asked questions later.

2) Who is ever going to admit to a misleading verbal representation? Courts don't like he said/she said stuff.

2007-10-19 12:00:29 · answer #3 · answered by dpilipis 4 · 0 0

You are bound by the entirety of the contract once you sign it (excepting illegal content obviously).

You are indeed "out of luck" unless you can negotiate as I mentioned in response to your last question.

2007-10-19 12:06:09 · answer #4 · answered by Wyoming Rider 6 · 0 0

you should have read it before you signed the contract. if it was stated in there and you signed, then thats that, no more info is required.

2007-10-19 11:58:51 · answer #5 · answered by mickey g 6 · 0 0

If you sign it, you accept responsibility for having read it. That's why I always read lease agreements.

2007-10-19 11:57:30 · answer #6 · answered by Lavrenti Beria 6 · 1 0

it's in the contract .what more did you want? 60 days is not 45 or 30 it is 60. DUH!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

2007-10-19 11:58:51 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers