some people say it is zero i need a real answer.
2007-10-18 11:32:06 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Let's think logically....
(x-a)(x-b)......(x-x)(x-y)(x-z) correct?
(x-x)=0 right?
If you have (anything) multiplied by zero, what do you get?
Is the answer true no matter what other factors you have?
That's your answer.
2007-10-18 11:36:19 · answer #1 · answered by tkquestion 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, it is zero, because the term (x-x) will be equal to zero, and that term is included three steps before (x-z). Thus, the whole answer is zero.
2007-10-18 11:34:48 · answer #2 · answered by magicc001 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it would be 0 because you would eventually get to (x-x) which is 0 so when you multiply 0 by the rest it would be 0
2007-10-18 11:35:12 · answer #3 · answered by cow9634 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it is 0 because you have (x-x) = 0
2007-10-18 11:35:39 · answer #4 · answered by norman 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
an equation needs 2 sides before and after an equal sign, if you meant:
(x-a)(x-b)....(x-z) = 0
the answers are:
x1 = a, x2 = b, ..., xn = z
2007-10-18 11:36:29 · answer #5 · answered by landonastar 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
26x+abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyz?
2007-10-18 11:35:15 · answer #6 · answered by Abira 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋