number theory prove that (a+b)^n=b^n?

3 ⤊

2007-10-17 23:46:56 · 3 answers · asked by chaitra d 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics

Huh??? Only if a=0 ☺

Doug

2007-10-17 23:51:20 · answer #1 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋

I agree with Doug. b^n may approach to (a+b)^n all you want to, but they will never be equals to each other unless a = 0

Ilusion

2007-10-18 10:55:17 · answer #2 · answered by Ilusion 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋

That is correct for b^n to approach (a+b)^n as n approaches infinity.

2007-10-18 06:59:54 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋