We all know that guns could be used for defense or murder. We know that other things could kill, most likely less but sometimes more effectively than guns; For example: knives, baseball bats, cars, chainsaws, etc. The difference is that guns have the intended purpose of effectively killing people. But is that "intended purpose" enough to justify prohibiting its use by anyone who freely wishes to use one or two?
2007-10-17
21:50:13
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6 answers
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asked by
Idontknow
1
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics